#15 Biology Class 12 Chapter 15 - Biodiversity, Conservation and Environmental Issues MHTCET / NEET MCQ

 

15- Biodiversity, Conservation and Environmental Issues MCQ






(2) Select odd one out on the basis of Ex situ conservation.

(a) Zoological park
(b) Tissue culture
(c) Sacred groves
(d) Cryopreservation

Answer-
(a) Zoological park
(3) 





(3) Which of the following factors will favour species diversity ?

(a) Invasive species 
(b) Glaciation
(c) Forest canopy 
(d) Co-extinction

Answer-
(a) Invasive species
(4) 




(4) The term “terror of Bengal’ is used for .......... .

(a) algal bloom 
(b) water hyacinth
(c) increased BOD 
(d) eutrophication

Answer-
(b) water hyacinth





(5) CFC are air polluting agents which are produced by .......... .

(a) Diesel trucks 
(b) Jet planes
(c) Rice fields 
(d) Industries

Answer-
(b) Jet planes




(6) Diversity in living beings is due to ......... .

(a) mutation
(b) long term evolutionary change
(c) gradual change
(d) short term evolutionary change

Answer-
(b) long term evolutionary change




(7) Diversification of plant life appeared ......... .

(a) due to long periods of evolutionary changes
(b) due to abrupt mutations
(c) suddenly on the earth
(d) by seed dispersal

Answer-
(a) due to long periods of evolutionary changes




(8) Rauwolfia vomitoria shows ......... in terms of the potency and concentration of reserpine that it produces.

(a) genetic diversity
(b) species diversity
(c) ecological diversity
(d) biodiversity

Answer-
(a) genetic diversity




(9) Which of the following country has the greatest ecosystem diversity ?

(a) Norway 
(b) India
(c) Sweden 
(d) Finland

Answer-
(b) India




(10) India has deserts, rain forests, mangroves, coral reefs, wetlands, estuaries and alpine meadows. What kind of biodiversity is depicted in this statement ?

(a) Geographic diversity
(b) Species diversity
(c) Ecological diversity
(d) Genetic diversity

Answer-
(c) Ecological diversity




(11) Biodiversity and its conservation are vital environmental issues of international concern because ......... .

(a) it fetches more economic progress and development
(b) it can attract more international tourists
(c) biodiversity and its conservation is essential for our survival and well-being of earth
(d) all the animals and plants would be extinct if not taken care of

Answer-
(c) biodiversity and its conservation is essential for our survival and well-being of earth




(12) Biodiversity of geographical region represents ......... .

(a) endangered species found in the region
(b) the diversity in the organisms living in the region
(c) genetic diversity present in the dominant species of the region
(d) species endemic to the region

Answer-
(b) the diversity in the organisms living in the region




(13) The latitudinal gradient in the pattern of biodiversity shows that ......... .

(a) species diversity decreases as one moves away from the equator towards the poles
(b) species diversity increases as we move away from the equator towards the poles
(c) species diversity decreases as we move away from the poles towards the equator
(d) species diversity remains constant as we move away from the poles towards the equator

Answer-
(a) species diversity decreases as one moves away from the equator towards the poles




(14) Which of the following is the possible cause for greater biodiversity in the tropics ?

(a) Higher productivity due to more solar energy.
(b) Lesser technological development.
(c) Traditional and religious practices for conservation of nature.
(d) Lesser natural calamities.

Answer-
(a) Higher productivity due to more solar energy.




(15) Log S = logC = Z logA is the equation that depicts relation between ......... .

(a) population density and time
(b) population growth and time
(c) species richness and area
(d) area and species migrations

Answer-
(c) species richness and area




(16) Regression coefficient is shown by ......... in the Humboldt’s equation [Log S = logC + Z logA] of species richness.

(a) S
(b) Z
(c) A
(d) C

Answer-
(b) Z




(17) Choose an incorrect statement :

(a) The relation between species richness and area for a wide variety of taxa turns out to be a rectangular hyperbola.
(b) The relation between species richness and area on a logarithmic scale, the relationship is a straight line.
(c) For the species-area relationships among very large areas like the entire continents, the slope of the line appears to be much steeper.
(d) Value of Z always keep on changing for every taxonomic group or the region.

Answer-
(d) Value of Z always keep on changing for every taxonomic group or the region.




(18) Who observed that within a region, species richness increased with increasing explored area, to a certain limit ?

(a) Robert May
(b) John Muir
(c) A lexander von Humboldt
(d) David Tilman

Answer-
(c) A lexander von Humboldt




(19) Who was Alexander von Humboldt ?

(a) A merican Population biologist
(b) German naturalist and geographer
(c) Dutch Botanist
(d) French Zoologist

Answer-
(b) German naturalist and geographer




(20) Which is the most well-known pattern of biodiversity ?

(a) Species-Area relationship
(b) Latitudinal gradient
(c) Longitudinal gradient
(d) Altitudinal gradient

Answer-
(b) Latitudinal gradient




(21) Name the scientist who studied ecosystem by using analogy of ‘The rivet popper hypothesis’.

(a) John Muir
(b) Alexander von Humboldt
(c) Robert May
(d) Paul Ehrlich

Answer-
(d) Paul Ehrlich




(22) When is the serious threat developed to an ecosystem ?

(a) When any one or two species become extinct.
(b) When key species that drive ecosystem become extinct.
(c) When native species are replaced by exotic species.
(d) When human beings take conservation measures.

Answer-
(b) When key species that drive ecosystem become extinct.




(23) Which animal group is more vulnerable to the process of extinction ?

(a) Amphibian 
(b) Reptilia
(c) Aves 
(d) Mammalia

Answer-
(a) Amphibian 




(24) Deforestation does not lead to ......... .

(a) quick nutrient cycling
(b) soil erosion
(c) alteration of local weather condition
(d) destruction of natural habitat of wild animals

Answer-
(a) quick nutrient cycling




(25) What are the ‘The Evil Quartet’ for the loss of biodiversity ?

(a) Habitat loss and fragmentation, Over exploitation, Alien species invasion, Co-extinctions
(b) Pollution, Global warming, Increasing population, Reclamation
(c) Greenhouse effect, Sea level rise, Air pollution, Deforestation
(d) A griculture, Industrialization, Urbanization, Constructing transport facilities

Answer-
(a) Habitat loss and fragmentation, Over exploitation, Alien species invasion, Co-extinctions




(26) Introduction of which aquaculture fish has created threat to the indigenous catfishes in Indian rivers ?

(a) Clarias gariepinus
(b) Arius sps.
(c) Heteropneustus fossilis
(d) Pangasius pangasius

Answer-
(a) Clarias gariepinus




(27) The phenomena of co-extinction is observed when ......... .

(a) host fish gets extinct, its parasites also meet the same fate
(b) parasites are killed, the host too suffers
(c) host-parasite relationship is terminated
(d) parasites overpower the host

Answer-
(a) host fish gets extinct, its parasites also meet the same fate




(28) Which of the following suffers due to coextinction ?

(a) Selection of mates for reproduction
(b) Plant-pollinator mutualism
(c) Feeding preferences
(d) Prey-predator relationships

Answer-
(b) Plant-pollinator mutualism




(29) The region with very high levels of species richness is called ......... .

(a) Biodiversity hotspot
(b) National Park
(c) Sanctuary
(d) Biosphere

Answer-
(a) Biodiversity hotspot




(30) Which of the following does not offer ex-situ conservation to the flora and fauna ?

(a) Zoological parks
(b) Botanical gardens
(c) Sanctuaries
(d) Gene banks

Answer-
(c) Sanctuaries




(31) Gametes of threatened species can be preserved in viable and fertile condition for long periods using ......... techniques.

(a) cryopreservation
(b) tissue culture
(c) formalin preservation
(d) DNA hybridization

Answer-
(a) cryopreservation




(32) Find the odd one out :

(a) Seed banks
(b) Gene banks
(c) Invitro fertilization
(d) Electrophoresis

Answer-
(d) Electrophoresis




(33) Chipko andolan movement is to protect the ......... .

(a) flora 
(b) fauna
(c) trees 
(d) rivers

Answer-
(c) trees 




(34) Hotspots are the examples of ......... .

(a) in-situ conservation
(b) ex-situ conservation
(c) wildlife protection
(d) water conservation

Answer-
(a) in-situ conservation




(35) Which of the following is not the outcome of preserving biodiversity ?

(a) To maintain the ecological processes.
(b) To build national economy.
(c) To study life in its natural habitats.
(d) To disturb ecological balance.

Answer-
(d) To disturb ecological balance.




(36) Which of the following is not an example of ex-situ conservation of biodiversity ?

(a) Botanical gardens
(b) Culture collections
(c) Zoological parks
(d) Colleges teaching courses on biodiversity

Answer-
(d) Colleges teaching courses on biodiversity




(37) Cryopreservation of gametes of threatened species in viable and fertile condition can be referred to as :

(a) In-situ cryo-conservation of biodiversity
(b) In-situ conservation of biodiversity
(c) Advanced ex-situ conservation of biodiversity
(d) In-situ conservation by sacred groves

Answer-
(c) Advanced ex-situ conservation of biodiversity




(38) In which of the following, both pairs have correct combination ?

(a) In-situ conservation : Tissue culture
   Ex-situ conservation : Sacred groves
(b) In-situ conservation : National Park 
   Ex-situ conservation : Botanical Garden
(c) In-situ conservation : Cryopreservation 
   Ex-situ conservation : Wildlife Sanctuary
(d) In-situ conservation : Seed Bank 
   Ex-situ conservation : National Park

Answer-
(b) In-situ conservation : National Park 
   Ex-situ conservation : Botanical Garden




(39) The organization which publishes the Red List of species is ......... .

(a) UNEP 
(b) WWF
(c) ICFRE 
(d) IUCN

Answer-
(d) IUCN




(40) The World Biodiversity Day is observed on ......... .

(a) 22nd April 
(b) 5th June
(c) 3rd March 
(d) 22nd May

Answer-
(d) 22nd May




(41) Which of the following expanded form of the given acronyms is correct ?

(a) IPCC = International Panel for Climate Change.
(b) UNEP = United Nations Environment Policy.
(c) EPA = Environmental Pollution Agency.
(d) IUCN= International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources.

Answer-
(d) IUCN= International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources.





(42) The Air Prevention and Control of Pollution Act came into force in ......... .

(a) 1975 
(b) 1981
(c) 1985 
(d) 1990

Answer-
(b) 1981




(43) Which is the most dangerous and common kind of environmental pollution ?

(a) Air 
(b) Water
(c) Noise 
(d) Radioactive

Answer-
(a) Air 




(44) How does carbon monoxide, a poisonous gas emitted by automobiles, prevent transport of oxygen into the body tissues ?

(a) By destroying haemoglobin.
(b) By forming a stable compound with haemoglobin.
(c) By obstructing the reaction of oxygen with haemoglobin.
(d) By changing oxygen into carbon dioxide.

Answer-
(b) By forming a stable compound with haemoglobin.




(45) A scrubber in the exhaust of a chemical industrial plant removes ......... .

(a) gases like ozone and methane
(b) particulate matter of the size 2.5 micrometer or less
(c) gases like sulphur dioxide
(d) particulate matter of the size 5 micrometer or above

Answer-
(c) gases like sulphur dioxide





(46) Which of the following can be considered as the most hazardous effect of air pollution ?

(a) Reduction in the growth and yield of the crop.
(b) Premature death of the plants.
(c) Effect on the monuments.
(d) Deleterious effects on the respiratory system of all animals.

Answer-
(d) Deleterious effects on the respiratory system of all animals.





(47) Harmful effects of air pollution does not depend on the ......... .

(a) concentration of pollutants
(b) duration of exposure
(c) the type of organism
(d) time of the day

Answer-
(d) time of the day





(48) Which equipment is most widely used for filtering out particulate matter ?

(a) Scrubber 
(b) Electrostatic precipitator
(c) Filters 
(d) Centrifuges

Answer-
(b) Electrostatic precipitator





(49) What is the percentage of particulate matter removed from the thermal power exhaust with the help of electrostatic precipitator ?

(a) 25% 
(b) 50% 
(c) 80% 
(d) 99%

Answer-
(d) 99%





(50) Scrubber removes gases like ......... .

(a) Ozone 
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Sulphur dioxide 
(d) Methane

Answer-
(c) Sulphur dioxide 





(51) Which part of the electrostatic precipitator is maintained at several thousand volts ?

(a) Collection plates 
(b) Electrode wires
(c) Corona
(d) Water line spray

Answer-
(b) Electrode wires





(52) Which particles are responsible for causing the greatest harm to human health ?

(a) Particulates with size 1.00 micrometres in diameter.
(b) Particulates with size of 10 mm.
(c) Particulates with size 2.5 micrometres or less in diameter.
(d) Particulates with size of 100 micrometres in diameter

Answer-
(c) Particulates with size 2.5 micrometres or less in diameter.





(53) According to Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), which particulate size in diameter (in micrometers) of the air pollutants is responsible for greatest harm to human health ?

(a) 2.5 or less 
(b) 1.5 or less
(c) 1.0 or less 
(d) Between 2.5 – 5.3

Answer-
(a) 2.5 or less 





(54) When the exhaust passes through the catalytic converters, what happens to the unburnt hydrocarbons ?

(a) They are converted to oxygen and water.
(b) They are converted to energy to run the car.
(c) They are converted to carbon dioxide and water.
(d) They are converted to carbonates.

Answer-
(c) They are converted to carbon dioxide and water.





(55) When the exhaust passes through the catalytic converters, what happens to the carbon monoxide and nitric oxide ?

(a) They are changed to carbon dioxide and nitrogen gas, respectively.
(b) They are changed to oxygen and carbon monoxide respectively.
(c) They are converted into hydrocarbons.
(d) They remain unchanged.

Answer-
(a) They are changed to carbon dioxide and nitrogen gas, respectively.





(56) Motor vehicles equipped with catalytic converter should use unleaded petrol because ......... .

(a) lead causes pollution
(b) lead in the petrol inactivates the catalyst
(c) lead makes automobile machinery inefficient
(d) lead causes more consumption of petrol

Answer-
(b) lead in the petrol inactivates the catalyst





(57) Which expensive metals are fitted into catalytic converters of the automobiles for reducing emission of poisonous gases ?

(a) Platinum-palladium and rhodium
(b) S ilver, Gold
(c) Platinum and Gold
(d) R hodium and Silver

Answer-
(a) Platinum-palladium and rhodium





(58) Which part of the electrostatic precipitator attract the charged dust particles ?

(a) Collection plates 
(b) Electrode wires
(c) Corona 
(d) Dust particles

Answer-
(a) Collection plates 





(59) Two thirds of sulphur dioxides are produced by ......... .

(a) heating plants
(b) industrial processes
(c) automobile traffic
(d) electric power plants

Answer-
(d) electric power plants





(60) Which is the worst polluted city among the world with respect to air pollution ?

(a) New York 
(b) Tokyo
(c) New Delhi 
(d) Dubai

Answer-
(c) New Delhi 





(61) Which are the other equivalent norms to Euro-II norms ?

(a) Bharat stage II
(b) Euro-III
(c) Euro-IV
(d) A ir (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act

Answer-
(a) Bharat stage II





(62) Which of the following statements is inaccurate ?

(a) A ll automobiles should have Euro-III emission norm compliant automobiles and fuels by 2010.
(b) A ll automobiles and fuel-petrol and diesel – were to have met the Euro-III emission specifications in major 11 cities from April 1, 2005.
(c) A ll automobiles should have to meet the Euro-IV norms by April 1, 2010.
(d) Quality of Delhi air has significantlydeteriorated due to all the above norms.

Answer-
(d) Quality of Delhi air has significantlydeteriorated due to all the above norms.






(63) What was observed within a period of 1997 and 2005 in Delhi as regards to air quality ?

(a) There was net increase in all the types of air pollutants.
(b) Delhi became totally pollution-free during this period only.
(c) There was substantial fall in concentrations of CO2 and SO2.
(d) There was decrease in the concentration of H2S and CO.

Answer-
(c) There was substantial fall in concentrations of CO2 and SO2.






(64) When was Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act amended to include noise as an air Pollutant ?

(a) 1981 
(b) 1984 
(c) 1986 
(d) 1987

Answer-
(d) 1987






(65) Which of the following is not the measure to reduce the noise pollution ?

(a) Delimitation of horn-free zones around hospitals and schools.
(b) Permissible sound-levels of crackers and of loudspeakers.
(c) Time limits after which loudspeakers cannot be played.
(d) Complete ban on processions playing loud percussion instruments.

Answer-
(d) Complete ban on processions playing loud percussion instruments.






(66) How does CO affect plant respiration ?

(a) By yellowing leaves
(b) By closing stomatal openings
(c) By reacting with cytochrome oxidase enzyme system
(d) By causing defoliation and leaf lesions

Answer-
(c) By reacting with cytochrome oxidase enzyme system






(67) Acid rains are produced by ......... .

(a) excess emissions of NO2 and SO2 from burning fossil fuels
(b) excess production of NH3 by industry and coal gas
(c) excess release of carbon monoxide by incomplete combustion
(d) excess formation of CO2 by combustion and animal respiration

Answer-
(a) excess emissions of NO2 and SO2 from burning fossil fuels






(68) How much decibel sound is produced by the jet plane or rocket ?

(a) 50 dB 
(b) 80 dB
(c) 150 dB 
(d) 200 dB

Answer-
(c) 150 dB 






(69) To what decibel level noise rises during festive seasons due to crackers ?

(a) 20 dB 
(b) 50 dB
(c) 100 dB 
(d) 150 dB

Answer-
(c) 100 dB 






(70) dB is the standard abbreviation used for the quantitative expression of ......... .

(a) the density of bacteria in a medium 
(b) a particular pollutant
(c) the dominant Bacillus in a culture 
(d) a certain pesticide

Answer-
(b) a particular pollutant






(71) Sound becomes hazardous noise pollution at level ......... .

(a) above 30 dB 
(b) above 80 dB
(c) above 100 dB 
(d) above 120 dB

Answer-
(b) above 80 dB





(72) When was Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act passed by the Government of India ?

(a) 1974 
(b) 1984 
(c) 1986 
(d) 1992

Answer-
(a) 1974 






(73) A mere ......... impurities make water contaminated with domestic sewage unfit for human use.

(a) 0.8% 
(b) 0.7% 
(c) 0.5% 
(d) 0.1%

Answer-
(d) 0.1%






(74) What is the outcome of algal bloom ?

(a) Lots of algae available for fodder.
(b) Deterioration of water quality and fish mortality.
(c) Cleaning up of the ambient water.
(d) Decrease in BOD amount.

Answer-
(b) Deterioration of water quality and fish mortality.






(75) When there are excessive microorganisms in the water that cause biodegradation there is ......... .

(a) sharp rise in the dissolved oxygen content
(b) sharp decline of dissolved oxygen content
(c) refreshing odour to the water
(d) loss of algal population

Answer-
(b) sharp decline of dissolved oxygen content






(76) Which is world’s most problematic aquatic weed ?

(a) Hydrilla 
(b) Pistia
(c) Eichhornia crassipes 
(d) Duckweed

Answer-
(c) Eichhornia crassipes 






(77) Which two substances are well-known for biomagnification ?

(a) Mercury and DDT
(b) Cadmium and Lead
(c) Petroleum hydrocarbons and sewage
(d) Paper manufacturing effluents and copper

Answer-
(a) Mercury and DDT






(78) Choose the correct statement :

(a) Concentration of DDT in the water declined with the passing time.
(b) Concentration of DDT in the water remains the same over many years without any effect.
(c) If concentration of DDT starts at 0.003 ppb in water, it can ultimately reach 25 ppm in fish-eating birds.
(d) If concentration of DDT is 25 ppm in water, in fish-eating bird population it reduces to 0.003 ppb later.

Answer-
(c) If concentration of DDT starts at 0.003 ppb in water, it can ultimately reach 25 ppm in fish-eating birds.






(79) Which major pollutant is released from electricity generating units ?

(a) heated water 
(b) arsenic
(c) cadmium 
(d) ammonia

Answer-
(a) heated water 






(80) Which of the statement is incorrect with reference to thermal waste water ?

(a) Thermal wastewater eliminates or reduces the number of organisms sensitive to high temperature.
(b) Thermal wastewater may enhance the growth of plants and fish in extremely cold areas.
(c) Thermal wastewater causes damage to the indigenous flora and fauna.
(d) Thermal waste water is not an important category of pollutants.

Answer-
(d) Thermal waste water is not an important category of pollutants.






(81) Choose the incorrect statement from the following statements :

(a) Ecological sanitation is a sustainable system for handling human excreta.
(b) One can save lot of water if flush is not used for sanitation.
(c) E cological sanitation is a practical, hygienic, efficient and cost-effective solution to human waste disposal.
(d) Human excreta cannot be recycled into any resource or natural and safe fertilizer.

Answer-
(d) Human excreta cannot be recycled into any resource or natural and safe fertilizer.






(82) Eutrophication is caused by ......... .

(a) acid rain
(b) nitrates and phosphates
(c) sulphates and carbonates
(d) CO2 and CO

Answer-
(b) nitrates and phosphates






(83) Measuring Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a method used for ......... .

(a) estimating the amount of organic matter in sewage water.
(b) working out the efficiency of oil driven automobile engines.
(c) measuring the activity of Saccharomyces cerevisae in producing curd on a commercial scale.
(d) working out the efficiency of RBCs about their capacity to carry oxygen.

Answer-
(a) estimating the amount of organic matter in sewage water.






(84) High value of BOD (Biochemical Oxygen Demand) indicates that ......... .

(a) consumption of organic matter in the water is higher by the microbes
(b) water is pure
(c) water is highly polluted
(d) water is less polluted

Answer-
(c) water is highly polluted






(85) When huge amount of sewage is dumped into a river, its BOD will ......... .

(a) increase 
(b) decrease
(c) sharply decrease 
(d) remain unchanged

Answer-
(a) increase 






(86) Which river of India is considered as an unending sewer ?

(a) Mula in Pune
(b) Panchaganga in Kolhapur
(c) Ganga from Haridwar to Kolkata
(d) Patalganga in Panvel

Answer-
(c) Ganga from Haridwar to Kolkata






(87) Sewage drained into water bodies kill fishes because ......... .

(a) excessive carbon dioxide is added to water
(b) it gives off a bad smell
(c) it removes the food eaten by the fish
(d) it increases competition fishes for dissolved oxygen

Answer-
(d) it increases competition fishes for dissolved oxygen





(88) Which method was commonly practised for managing solid waste generated by municipal bodies ?

(a) Open dumps
(b) Open burning dumps
(c) Accumulation in trenches
(d) Accumulation in water bodies

Answer-
(b) Open burning dumps






(89) Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) may not be a good index for pollution of water bodies receiving effluents from ......... .

(a) domestic sewage
(b) dairy industry
(c) petroleum industry
(d) sugar industry

Answer-
(c) petroleum industry






(90) What is the appropriate scientific method for waste disposal ?

(a) Land fill
(b) Open burning dump
(c) Sanitary landfill
(d) Open dumps (Junk yards)

Answer-
(c) Sanitary landfill






(91) Which statement correctly describes the process of waste disposal in sanitary landfill ?

(a) Solid wastes are dumped in a trench or depression.
(b) Solid wastes are dumped in a depression and compacted.
(c) Solid wastes are dumped in a trench, compacted and covered by soil.
(d) Solid wastes are dumped in a trench and burnt to reduce volume.

Answer-
(c) Solid wastes are dumped in a trench, compacted and covered by soil.






(92) Which is adverse effect of sanitary land fill noticed occasionally ?

(a) Breeding place for rats and flies.
(b) Seepage of chemicals polluting ground water.
(c) Burning of hazardous waste.
(d) Accumulation of biodegradable materials.

Answer-
(b) Seepage of chemicals polluting ground water.






(93) From the following, which is not a category of sorting of waste ?

(a) Recyclable 
(b) Biodegradable
(c) Non-biodegradable 
(d) Explosive

Answer-
(d) Explosive






(94) From the following, which is a recyclable waste ?

(a) Food waste 
(b) Newspaper
(c) Leather 
(d) Rubber

Answer-
(b) Newspaper






(95) Which is appropriate method for disposal of hospital wastes ?

(a) Sanitary landfills
(b) Open dumps
(c) Use of incinerators
(d) Composting

Answer-
(c) Use of incinerators






(96) Which is valid suggestion for responsible citizen to deal with managing nonbiodegradable waste ?

(a) Mixing of biodegradable and recyclable waste material.
(b) Mixing of biodegradable and nonbiodegradable waste material.
(c) Use of more and more disposable material.
(d) Use of cloth bags and avoid plastic carry bags.

Answer-
(d) Use of cloth bags and avoid plastic carry bags.






(97) For treatment of e-waste, which is the most suitable solution ?

(a) Recycling and recovery
(b) Buried in landfills
(c) Incineration
(d) Disposal and storage in open

Answer-
(a) Recycling and recovery






(98) Which metals are recovered from recycling of E-waste ?

(a) Copper, iron, silicon, nickel and gold.
(b) Platinum, aluminium, silicon, silver and rhodium.
(c) S odium, iron, silicon, uranium and potassium.
(d) Copper, radium, zinc, cobalt and titanium.

Answer-
(a) Copper, iron, silicon, nickel and gold.






(99) Greenhouse effect is warming due to ......... .

(a) infra-red rays reaching earth
(b) moisture layer in the atmosphere
(c) increase in temperature due to increase in carbon dioxide concentration of the atmosphere
(d) ozone layer in the atmosphere

Answer-
(c) increase in temperature due to increase in carbon dioxide concentration of the atmosphere






(100) Which one of the following is the correct percentage of the two (out of the total of 4) greenhouse gases that contribute to the total global warming ?

(a) CFCs 14%, Methane 20%
(b) CO2 40%, CFCs 30%
(c) N 2O 6%, CO2 86%
(d) M ethane 20%, N2O 18%

Answer-
(a) CFCs 14%, Methane 20%






(101) The two gases making highest relative contribution to the greenhouse gases are ......... .

(a) CO2 and CH4 
(b) CH4 and N2O
(c) CFCs and N2O 
(d) CO2 and N2

Answer-
(a) CO2 and CH4 






(102) Which is the chief reason of global warming ?

(a) Greenhouse effect
(b) Absorption of UV radiations by ozone
(c) Effect of visible light
(d) Trapping of radio waves

Answer-
(a) Greenhouse effect






(103) Why naturally occurring greenhouse effect is important ?

(a) It maintains the temperature of earth at average 15 °C.
(b) It maintains the temperature of earth at 18 °C.
(c) It maintains lot of greenery on the surface of the earth.
(d) It maintains level of ozone in atmosphere.

Answer-
(a) It maintains the temperature of earth at average 15 °C.






(104) Clouds and gases reflect about ......... of the incoming solar radiation.

(a) one half 
(b) one-fourth
(c) one tenth 
(d) three-fourth

Answer-
(b) one-fourth






(105) Montreal Protocol aims at ......... .

(a) Biodiversity conservation
(b) Control of water pollution
(c) Control of CO2 emission
(d) Reduction of ozone depleting substances

Answer-
(d) Reduction of ozone depleting substances






(106) Which are the four most affected aspects due to climate change caused due to global warming ?

(a) Energy, Agricultural research, Sewage disposal, Entertainment.
(b) Food supply, Water, Health, Infrastructure.
(c) Political views, Equality, Natural Resources, Safety of women.
(d) Education, Empowerment of people, Shelter, Processed food.

Answer-
(b) Food supply, Water, Health, Infrastructure.






(107) What is exactly measured in Dobson units or DU  ?

(a) The thickness of the ozone in a column of air from the ground to the top of the Atmosphere.
(b) The noise level in the circumscribed area.
(c) The amount of chlorofluorocarbons. 
(d) The hole in the ozone umbrella.

Answer-
(a) The thickness of the ozone in a column of air from the ground to the top of the Atmosphere.






(108) ‘Good ozone’ is found in the ......... while the bad ozone is in -------------.

(a) Mesosphere, Ionosphere
(b) Mesosphere, Troposphere
(c) Stratosphere, Troposphere
(d) Stratosphere, Ionosphere

Answer-
(c) Stratosphere, Troposphere






(109) UV-B does not cause ......... .

(a) aging of skin
(b) damage to skin cells
(c) various types of skin cancers
(d) albinism or lightning of the skin

Answer-
(d) albinism or lightning of the skin






(110) What is snow-blindness cataract ?

(a) Cataract noticed in people living in snow clad areas.
(b) Cataract that shows symptom of white dense patch.
(c) Cataract resulted due to inflammation of cornea.
(d) Cataract that causes total blindness.

Answer-
(c) Cataract resulted due to inflammation of cornea.






(111) Which policy is introduced by Government of India to conserve forests effectively with local people ?

(a) Wildlife protection
(b) Chipko movement
(c) Joint forest movement
(d) Joint tree plantation

Answer-
(c) Joint forest movement






(112) Name the award declared by Government of India to motivate people for protecting wildlife.

(a) Amrita Devi – Bishnoi Tree Protection Award.
(b) Amrita Devi – Bishnoi Wildlife Protection Award.
(c) Amrita Devi – Chipko Movement Award.
(d) Bahuguna – Chipko Movement Award

Answer-
(b) Amrita Devi – Bishnoi Wildlife Protection Award.